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ORIGINAL: herestoresmysoul

Wasnt St Augustine the one who said that sex was evil and that it should only EVER happen for having children? If so he was 100% wrong about that.

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ORIGINAL: KIG877

adultery is grounds for divorce,anybody that marries the adultress person is committing to adultery, and some people who claim that they are christians are n't really christians and are the same as nonbeleivers,and if they divorce you, that s desertion.

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ORIGINAL: gmcspice

Huck,

We will not be officially married to Christ until he returns.
If we are already married to him, then why does he say He goes to prepare a place for us and he will RETURN for his Bride?
Bride implies we are not yet a wife.
Prime example of what a woman is called BEFORE she is married officially.


And the story of the 5 wise BRIDES and 5 foolish BRIDES who go to wait on the groom to come.
The Church is the BRIDE waiting for the GROOM- Christ- to return and MARRY her.
You can present twisted version of what You think the bible says but You can't hide the truth.
Benelchi and Dave have given VERY biblical standings on what God says and I side with them. You can yell kick and scream all You want. The Bible doesn't support what You believe. You have yet to prove your point of view to me.

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Hay guys..we get the teaching of the man as the "head" in the marriage Eph 5:23-31 and the woman to obey her husband from Gen 3:16. Test all things through Scripture to see if the things are so

It does not say obey, Mike. It asks that we submit. The Bible also says the man should submit to his wife too. Do men do that? Nope most don't. The bible tells men to love their wives even as Christ loved his bride the Church and died for her, do men do that? nope. To fulfill a contract BOTH parties must do their part. If one is not that is breaking the contract. The Bible tells men to do their part FIRST! If they don't then how and why should the woman since she is the weaker vessel?
The Bible does not tell men they can have their cake and eat it too. All parties MUST do their part for a marriage to work. It they are not, then it is not valid.

Look at what God did to Israel for their fornication. He divorced them and the only way they can come back to him is THROUGH CHRIST!

The word that is key in MDR is fornication. What does it mean to you and God? Only the Bible can tell you what fornication really is.

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When it says we are to submit to one another in the fear of the Lord, Paul is not talking to husband and wives of Eph 5:23 or so to vs. 31. But Paul is telling us to submit to one another the Church and the body of Christ to put others before ourselves... But the headship of man was directly established right after Paul said that in "all things".

love ya sis, bro

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ORIGINAL: gmcspice

Sorry but YES men should submit to their wives too. The bible says you have to do it. Men do not have total authority. If man is NOT lining up with the word of God the wife doesn't have to submit to anything he says. Because the real head is Christ NOT the man.
Paul used marriage as a teaching example. He never meant for men to take it as "they can do what ever they want with their wives and the wives have to do what ever the man says". That is NOT how God meant for marriage to work.

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Do not confuse obedience with submission. They are not the same thing at all. Even in the passage in question Paul uses different words. "Children obey your parents," and "Wives submit to your husbands" are worded differently.

Submission is a heart attitude where obedience is the outward act. It is entirely possible to obey without submitting and to submit without obeying

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It is a curse and predates the Mosaic Law. It is from a different covenant than that which was done away in the New Covenant.

As it applied to Adam, it includes all of fallen mankind.

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ORIGINAL: gmcspice

how and why do people do this?

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ORIGINAL: gmcspice

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It is a curse and predates the Mosaic Law. It is from a different covenant than that which was done away in the New Covenant.

As it applied to Adam, it includes all of fallen mankind.

Thank YOU!!!!!

Now how can someone really misinterpret this as a law? Especially when the Bible does say it is a curse.
And to apply it as the law of husband? how and why do people do this?

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ORIGINAL: gmcspice

Now, what about the spouse that leaves the Christian spouse (in Corinthians)?
If they become Christian AFTER their divorce, are they allowed to get married since the divorce was base upon biblical grounds AND Jesus forgives of all sin?

I graciously await your answer.

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ORIGINAL: my quivers full

This is a difficult subject but I have a question that I can't find a satisfactory answer on and I have not yet found any scripture to speak to this.

If your spouse divorces you and then marries another, are you still bound to that marriage covenant? Even though your former spouse is still alive?

I know the scriptures say that if you divorce your spouse and marry another you are committing adultery. I know that God doesn't want us to divorce our spouses but rather reconcile no matter how long it takes. Even if we do end up divorced, there is still hope, but where is the person left whose former spouse marries someone else? Hoping and fighting for a marriage that can never be again?

If there is no scripture speaking to my question, is it because we need to examine the heart of what marriage is to find the answer?

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And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery

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When the Scripture relates to a law of something from a former biblical command it says "the law of..." as it was written in the old testament "the law of salt" or the "law of lepordsey" etc.. it was referencing a former law written. So the "law of the husband" came from a former law previous written about in Scripture.

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ORIGINAL: gmcspice

Now, what about the spouse that leaves the Christian spouse (in Corinthians)?
If they become Christian AFTER their divorce, are they allowed to get married since the divorce was base upon biblical grounds AND Jesus forgives of all sin?

I graciously await your answer

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IMO If your spouse divorces you for no scriptural reason, he/she is commiting adultery by remarrying.
If he/she is committing adultery, you will commit adultery IF you remarry.
So NO, the marriage covenant is not annulled by such actions.

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ORIGINAL: my quivers full

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IMO If your spouse divorces you for no scriptural reason, he/she is commiting adultery by remarrying.
If he/she is committing adultery, you will commit adultery IF you remarry.
So NO, the marriage covenant is not annulled by such actions.

What would be a scriptural reason? The only clause I found and barely one if you can call it that is marital unfaithfulness, which is exactly what? adultery?

If I understand you rightly, if your spouse divorces you and marries another then the one who didn't want the divorce is left alone for the rest of their lives hoping their former spouses second marriage doesn't work out and that they remarry them? We ought to fight for our marriages, I agree and we ought always to have hope and faith in a God who restores, but at what point do we let the wandering spouse go. Can we force them to stay where they don't want to be? I don't see God forcing anyone to follow Him.

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ORIGINAL: benelchi

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ORIGINAL: my quivers full

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IMO If your spouse divorces you for no scriptural reason, he/she is commiting adultery by remarrying.
If he/she is committing adultery, you will commit adultery IF you remarry.
So NO, the marriage covenant is not annulled by such actions.

What would be a scriptural reason? The only clause I found and barely one if you can call it that is marital unfaithfulness, which is exactly what? adultery?

If I understand you rightly, if your spouse divorces you and marries another then the one who didn't want the divorce is left alone for the rest of their lives hoping their former spouses second marriage doesn't work out and that they remarry them? We ought to fight for our marriages, I agree and we ought always to have hope and faith in a God who restores, but at what point do we let the wandering spouse go. Can we force them to stay where they don't want to be? I don't see God forcing anyone to follow Him.

Additionally, Duet 24:1-4 makes it very clear that a subsequent marriage irrevocably breaks the first marriage covenant i.e. a former spouse is not permitted to reconcile if there has been an intervening marriage. And Mt. 5 and 19 both declare that sexual infidelity is grounds for divorce and remarriage.

So contrary to the teaching of the "no remarriage ever group", one may never reconcile with a former spouse after they have remarried (to do so would itself be sin), and remarriage is permitted for the spouse who remains because the marriage covenant had already been broken.

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Additionally, Duet 24:1-4 makes it very clear that a subsequent marriage irrevocably breaks the first marriage covenant i.e. a former spouse is not permitted to reconcile if there has been an intervening marriage. And Mt. 5 and 19 both declare that sexual infidelity is grounds for divorce and remarriage.

So contrary to the teaching of the "no remarriage ever group", one may never reconcile with a former spouse after they have remarried (to do so would itself be sin), and remarriage is permitted for the spouse who remains because the marriage covenant had already been broken.